knowingly transfers, possesses, or uses, without lawful authority, a means of identification of another person. 18 U. S. C. §1028A(a)(1) However, when the Court is finished with it, the statute ends up being this:
 transfers, possesses, or uses, without lawful authority, a means of identification knowing it to be of another person. The Court's rationale is that
As a matter of ordinary English grammar, it seems natural to read the statute’s word "knowingly" as applying to all the subsequently listed elements of the crime. The Government cannot easily claim that the word "knowingly" applies only to the statutes first four words, or even its first seven. Poppycock. Balderdash. Fiddlesticks.
 "Knowingly" does not equal "knowing it to be." To be certain, the statute is poorly written and would make much more sense if it were written in the manner which the Court decided to rewrite it. However, as we all learned somewhen about the 3d grade, "ly" is a suffix indicating an adverb. This confines it to the verbs, "transfers, possesses, or uses." Thus, the government is quite correct in claiming that "knowingly" applies only to those four words. The Court is correct in stating that "without lawful authority" (the next three words-making "its first seven") isn't modified by "knowingly" because they also modify the verbs.
 Before anyone argues that certain adjectives can also end in "ly", I concede the point. Words such as "lovely" are clearly adjectives: "the lovely dress." Still, the general rule isn't violated in this case.
 In any event, I invite you to diagram that statute. Go on, it's a skill we all learned in seventh grade English class. Okay, now look at that line which separates the verbs from the object. Which side is "knowingly" on? The verbal side. Or, if you don't have the rudimentary English skills to do that, just take "knowingly" and try to fit it anywhere into "a means of identification of another person" without changing the form of "knowingly." It doesn't work.
 Justify your decision another way. Tell me that the Constitution, via the common law, requires a defendant to intend every element of a crime. Tell me there's a rule of statutory interpretation requiring intent for every element of a crime. Heck, tell me there's a scriviner's error. Just don't tell me you've reached this conclusion "as a matter of ordinary English grammar."